MCQs on World Cancer Day: 4 Feb 2025 | RRB, SSC, AIIMS | Radiology Notes

 MCQs on Cancer Awareness : 4 Feb 2025 (WCD)



1. What is the significance of World Cancer Day, observed every year on February 4th?
A) To raise awareness about cancer and encourage prevention, detection, and treatment
B) To celebrate cancer survivors
C) To honor oncologists
D) To launch new cancer drugs

Answer: A


2. What is the theme for World Cancer Day 2025 (based on recent continuity of themes like "Close the Care Gap")?
A) "Together We Can"
B) "Equal Care for All"
C) "Close the Care Gap"
D) "Hope for a Cure"

Answer: C


3. Which of the following imaging techniques is commonly used for detecting lung cancer?
A) MRI
B) PET-CT
C) Ultrasound
D) Mammography

Answer: B


4. Which cancer is most commonly screened using a mammogram?
A) Lung cancer
B) Brain cancer
C) Breast cancer
D) Prostate cancer

Answer: C


5. Which tumor marker is associated with prostate cancer?
A) CA-125
B) PSA
C) AFP
D) CEA

Answer: B


6. What is the primary role of MRI in cancer detection?
A) Detection of bone metastases
B) Functional imaging and soft tissue differentiation
C) Visualizing calcifications
D) Assessing airways

Answer: B


7. Which lifestyle factor contributes most significantly to lung cancer?
A) High salt diet
B) Lack of exercise
C) Smoking
D) Alcohol consumption

Answer: C


8. Which of the following treatments uses high-energy radiation to destroy cancer cells?
A) Chemotherapy
B) Radiotherapy
C) Surgery
D) Immunotherapy

Answer: B


9. Which imaging modality uses X-rays to produce detailed cross-sectional images of the body?
A) CT Scan
B) PET Scan
C) MRI
D) Ultrasound

Answer: A


10. What is the most common cancer worldwide according to recent statistics?
A) Lung cancer
B) Breast cancer
C) Liver cancer
D) Colorectal cancer

Answer: B


11. Tumor markers like CA-125 are typically used to monitor which type of cancer?
A) Ovarian cancer
B) Pancreatic cancer
C) Brain cancer
D) Prostate cancer

Answer: A


12. PET-CT scans are most useful in oncology for:
A) Evaluating tumor metabolism
B) Screening for bone fractures
C) Diagnosing kidney stones
D) Measuring blood pressure

Answer: A


13. Which term refers to the spread of cancer cells to distant parts of the body?
A) Invasion
B) Carcinogenesis
C) Metastasis
D) Angiogenesis

Answer: C


14. What type of radiation is used in external beam radiotherapy?
A) Gamma rays
B) Ultraviolet rays
C) Infrared rays
D) Microwaves

Answer: A


15. What does TNM stand for in cancer staging?
A) Tumor, Nodes, Metastasis
B) Treatment, Neoplasm, Marker
C) Target, Necrosis, Malignancy
D) Tumor, Neoplasm, Metastasis

Answer: A


16. Which of the following cancers is most strongly associated with Helicobacter pylori infection?
A) Pancreatic cancer
B) Colorectal cancer
C) Stomach cancer
D) Liver cancer

Answer: C


17. Which phase of clinical trials is primarily focused on evaluating the safety of a new drug?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
C) Phase III
D) Phase IV

Answer: A


18. What is the main advantage of MRI over CT scans in cancer imaging?
A) Faster scanning time
B) Better bone imaging
C) No ionizing radiation exposure
D) Lower cost

Answer: C


19. What is the primary goal of palliative care in cancer treatment?
A) Cure the cancer
B) Prolong survival
C) Relieve symptoms and improve quality of life
D) Reduce chemotherapy side effects

Answer: C


20. Which cancer type has the highest survival rate if detected early?
A) Pancreatic cancer
B) Breast cancer
C) Liver cancer
D) Lung cancer

Answer: B


21. What type of cells are targeted by chemotherapy?
A) Normal cells
B) Cancer cells only
C) Rapidly dividing cells
D) Dormant cells

Answer: C


22. What imaging technique is considered best for detecting brain tumors?
A) X-ray
B) CT Scan
C) MRI
D) PET Scan

Answer: C


23. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of radiotherapy?
A) Skin irritation
B) Nausea
C) Hair loss
D) Increased immunity

Answer: D


24. Which genetic mutation is strongly associated with breast cancer?
A) BRCA1/BRCA2
B) p53
C) KRAS
D) EGFR

Answer: A


25. Which of the following is NOT a known risk factor for colorectal cancer?
A) Sedentary lifestyle
B) High fiber diet
C) Family history of cancer
D) Smoking

Answer: B


26. In radiology, contrast agents are often used to:
A) Increase image resolution
B) Highlight specific tissues
C) Shorten scan time
D) Protect against radiation

Answer: B


27. Which cancer treatment strategy uses the body’s own immune system to fight cancer cells?
A) Surgery
B) Immunotherapy
C) Radiotherapy
D) Chemotherapy

Answer: B


28. Which imaging modality uses sound waves to create images of internal organs?
A) CT Scan
B) PET Scan
C) MRI
D) Ultrasound

Answer: D


29. Which term refers to the process of new blood vessel formation that supports tumor growth?
A) Apoptosis
B) Angiogenesis
C) Necrosis
D) Fibrosis

Answer: B


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30. What does the acronym PSA stand for in cancer diagnostics?
A) Pulmonary Screening Assessment
B) Prostate-Specific Antigen
C) Protein-Specific Analysis
D) Patient Safety Alert

Answer: B


31. Which cancer is commonly associated with long-term asbestos exposure?
A) Lung cancer
B) Mesothelioma
C) Skin cancer
D) Prostate cancer

Answer: B


32. What is the full form of the cancer staging system "AJCC"?
A) American Joint Committee on Cancer
B) Advanced Joint Cancer Center
C) Association for Joint Cancer Control
D) Allied Journal of Cancer Classification

Answer: A


33. BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations are linked to which cancers other than breast cancer?
A) Liver cancer
B) Ovarian cancer
C) Lung cancer
D) Bone cancer

Answer: B


34. What is a common screening tool for cervical cancer?
A) Colonoscopy
B) Mammography
C) Pap smear
D) Bone scan

Answer: C


35. Which imaging modality is most sensitive for detecting liver metastases?
A) Ultrasound
B) CT
C) MRI with contrast
D) PET scan

Answer: C


36. Which type of biopsy involves removing an entire lump or suspicious tissue?
A) Core biopsy
B) Incisional biopsy
C) Excisional biopsy
D) Needle biopsy

Answer: C


37. Which viral infection is a major risk factor for cervical cancer?
A) HIV
B) HPV
C) EBV
D) HCV

Answer: B


38. What is the hallmark feature of malignant tumors?
A) Slow growth
B) Localized mass
C) Invasion and metastasis
D) Smooth, well-defined borders

Answer: C


39. In breast cancer, what is the purpose of sentinel lymph node biopsy?
A) Detecting distant metastasis
B) Assessing cancer spread to lymph nodes
C) Measuring tumor size
D) Identifying recurrence

Answer: B


40. Which of the following cancers is most likely to be detected by a bone scan?
A) Pancreatic cancer
B) Prostate cancer
C) Liver cancer
D) Brain cancer

Answer: B


41. What is the most common site of metastasis for lung cancer?
A) Bone
B) Brain
C) Liver
D) All of the above

Answer: D


42. What is the primary purpose of using FDG in PET scans for cancer diagnosis?
A) Highlighting blood flow
B) Tracking glucose metabolism in cancer cells
C) Monitoring liver function
D) Enhancing soft tissue imaging

Answer: B


43. Which cancer is most frequently diagnosed in men?
A) Lung cancer
B) Colorectal cancer
C) Prostate cancer
D) Liver cancer

Answer: C


44. Tamoxifen is commonly used in the treatment of which type of cancer?
A) Ovarian cancer
B) Breast cancer
C) Skin cancer
D) Lung cancer

Answer: B


45. Which term describes programmed cell death?
A) Necrosis
B) Apoptosis
C) Angiogenesis
D) Mutation

Answer: B


46. In oncology, "neoadjuvant therapy" is given:
A) After surgery
B) Before surgery
C) Instead of surgery
D) Only for palliative care

Answer: B


47. Which imaging modality is best suited for detecting bone metastases?
A) CT
B) Bone scintigraphy
C) MRI
D) PET

Answer: B


48. What does "grade" in cancer pathology indicate?
A) Tumor size
B) Degree of differentiation
C) Depth of invasion
D) Number of lymph nodes involved

Answer: B


49. Which cancer treatment method uses targeted drugs to block specific molecules involved in tumor growth?
A) Chemotherapy
B) Immunotherapy
C) Targeted therapy
D) Radiotherapy

Answer: C


50. Which imaging technique is most useful for evaluating head and neck cancers?
A) PET scan
B) MRI
C) Ultrasound
D) X-ray

Answer: B


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