Chest X-RAY MCQs For Govt Exam Practice : SSC, UPSC, AIIMS
1. What type of imaging technique is a chest X-ray?
A) MRI
B) CT Scan
C) Ultrasound
D) Radiography
2. Which of the following conditions can a chest X-ray help diagnose?
A) Diabetes
B) Asthma
C) Pneumonia
D) Migraines
3. Which body part is primarily examined in a chest X-ray?
A) Abdomen
B) Thorax
C) Head
D) Legs
4. What is the primary purpose of a chest X-ray?
A) To measure blood pressure
B) To detect bone fractures
C) To visualize the heart and lungs
D) To examine the digestive system
5. Which medical professional typically interprets chest X-ray results?
A) Cardiologist
B) Radiologist
C) Orthopedist
D) Gastroenterologist
6. What is the most common reason for ordering a chest X-ray?
A) Broken bone
B) Respiratory symptoms
C) Skin infection
D) Headache
7. Which of the following is NOT a possible finding on a chest X-ray?
A) Enlarged heart
B) Collapsed lung
C) Broken leg
D) Pneumothorax
8. How is a patient positioned during a standard chest X-ray?
A) Standing
B) Lying on their back
C) Lying on their stomach
D) Sitting upright
9. What does a "PA" chest X-ray refer to?
A) Posterior-Anterior
B) Pre-Axial
C) Pulmonary Artery
D) Partial Asphyxiation
10. Which ionizing radiation is used in chest X-rays?
A) Alpha radiation
B) Beta radiation
C) Gamma radiation
D) X-rays
11. Which condition might exhibit as a "butterfly" appearance on a chest X-ray?
A) Pneumonia
B) Pleural effusion
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Atelectasis
12. What might cause a "white-out" appearance in a chest X-ray?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Normal lung tissue
C) Pleural effusion
D) Aortic aneurysm
13. Which disease might exhibit a "ground-glass" appearance on a chest X-ray?
A) Tuberculosis
B) Emphysema
C) Lung cancer
D) COVID-19
14. What does a "widened mediastinum" refer to in a chest X-ray?
A) Enlarged heart
B) Abnormal chest wall
C) Enlarged blood vessels
D) Abnormal spine curvature
15. Which imaging technique is best suited for assessing soft tissue details compared to a chest X-ray?
A) CT Scan
B) MRI
C) Ultrasound
D) PET Scan
16. What might cause a "coin lesion" on a chest X-ray?
A) Tuberculosis
B) Lung abscess
C) Lung cancer
D) Pneumonia
17. What does the term "atelectasis" refer to in a chest X-ray?
A) Collapsed lung
B) Enlarged heart
C) Abnormal spine curvature
D) Pneumothorax
18. Which condition might demonstrate a "flattened diaphragm" on a chest X-ray?
A) Pneumonia
B) Pleural effusion
C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D) Pulmonary embolism
19. Which body part is primarily assessed in a lateral view chest X-ray?
A) Front of the chest
B) Back of the chest
C) Right side of the chest
D) Left side of the chest
20. What is the standard protocol for protecting patients during chest X-rays from excessive radiation exposure?
A) Wearing a lead apron
B) Administering sedation
C) Using a protective helmet
D) Covering the eyes with goggles
21. Which of the following is a primary risk associated with frequent chest X-rays?
A) Increased risk of heart attacks
B) Radiation exposure
C) Vision impairment
D) Hearing loss
22. What's the typical procedure to prepare for a chest X-ray?
A) Fasting for 12 hours
B) Removing all clothing and jewelry
C) Drinking lots of water
D) No specific preparation required
23. What might a "flattened costophrenic angle" indicate on a chest X-ray?
A) Pneumonia
B) Pleural effusion
C) Lung abscess
D) Aortic aneurysm
24. What does "CXR" stand for in medical terminology?
A) Chest X-ray
B) Cardiac X-ray
C) Cranial X-ray
D) Cervical X-ray
25. Which imaging modality often follows a suspicious finding on a chest X-ray for further investigation?
A) MRI
B) Ultrasound
C) PET Scan
D) CT Scan
26. Which anatomical landmark helps to position the X-ray tube accurately during a chest X-ray?
A) Sternoclavicular joint
B) Navel
C) Adam's apple
D) Coccyx
27. What might cause a "bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy" on a chest X-ray?
A) Tuberculosis
B) Emphysema
C) Lung cancer
D) Pneumothorax
28. What is the primary advantage of a lateral chest X-ray compared to a frontal (PA) view?
A) Detecting lung tumors
B) Evaluating heart size
C) Assessing rib fractures
D) Evaluating diaphragm movement
29. Which imaging modality offers real-time images and might be used in emergency situations instead of a chest X-ray?
A) MRI
B) Fluoroscopy
C) PET Scan
D) Ultrasound
30. What might cause an "air-fluid level" on a chest X-ray?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Pleural effusion
C) Pneumonia
D) Normal lung tissue
31. Which type of chest X-ray is typically used for patients who are unable to stand?
A) Decubitus view
B) Lateral view
C) Oblique view
D) PA view
32. What does the term "opacification" refer to in a chest X-ray report?
A) Darkening of the image
B) Clear visibility of structures
C) Presence of foreign bodies
D) Complete absence of structures
33. What might a "costovertebral angle tenderness" suggest when correlated with a chest X-ray?
A) Rib fracture
B) Lung tumor
C) Pleural effusion
D) Aortic aneurysm
34. Which condition might show a "cavity" on a chest X-ray?
A) Bronchitis
B) Asthma
C) Lung cancer
D) Atelectasis
35. What is the typical time duration for a standard chest X-ray procedure?
A) 5-10 minutes
B) 30-60 minutes
C) 2-3 hours
D) Depends on the severity of the condition
36. Which imaging modality is considered safer in terms of radiation exposure compared to a chest X-ray?
A) CT Scan
B) MRI
C) PET Scan
D) Fluoroscopy
37. What might be the cause of "tram lines" visible on a chest X-ray?
A) Rib fractures
B) Foreign body aspiration
C) Scar tissue
D) Tuberculosis
38. In which part of the hospital is a chest X-ray most commonly performed?
A) Emergency Room
B) Operating Room
C) Laboratory
D) Radiology Department
39. What does the term "bronchovascular markings" indicate on a chest X-ray?
A) Normal lung tissue
B) Presence of lung tumors
C) Airway obstruction
D) Pneumothorax
40. What precaution is necessary for pregnant women undergoing a chest X-ray?
A) None, as it's safe during pregnancy
B) Avoiding the procedure unless crucial
C) Wearing a lead apron
D) Using a higher radiation dose for clearer images
41. Which lung disease might showcase "reticular opacities" on a chest X-ray?
A) Emphysema
B) Bronchitis
C) Interstitial lung disease
D) Asthma
42. What does the term "silhouette sign" refer to in chest X-rays?
A) Borders of the heart and diaphragm merging
B) Abnormal fluid accumulation in the lungs
C) Presence of lung nodules
D) Air trapping in the lungs
43. Which pathology might result in a "pleural-based mass" on a chest X-ray?
A) Lung cancer
B) Pneumonia
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Pleural effusion
44. What might cause a "tracheal deviation" on a chest X-ray?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Enlarged heart
C) Lung abscess
D) Aortic aneurysm
45. Which imaging view allows the visualization of air and fluid levels within the thoracic cavity?
A) AP view
B) Lateral decubitus view
C) Oblique view
D) PA view
46. What does "hyperinflation" typically indicate on a chest X-ray?
A) Lung collapse
B) Airway obstruction
C) Normal lung tissue
D) Enlarged heart
47. Which condition might present as "tree-in-bud" appearance on a chest X-ray?
A) Tuberculosis
B) Lung cancer
C) Pleural effusion
D) Pneumothorax
48. What is the typical procedure if a patient is unable to stand for a chest X-ray?
A) Skipping the X-ray
B) Sitting upright in a chair
C) Utilizing a portable X-ray machine
D) Placing the patient in the lateral decubitus position
49. Which structure in the chest might cast a "double density" shadow on a chest X-ray?
A) Rib fractures
B) Enlarged heart
C) Clavicle
D) Diaphragm
50. What might "cardiomegaly" indicate on a chest X-ray?
A) Enlarged heart
B) Collapsed lung
C) Airway obstruction
D) Normal heart size
Answers :
1. D) Radiography
2. C) Pneumonia
3. B) Thorax
4. C) To visualize the heart and lungs
5. B) Radiologist
6. B) Respiratory symptoms
7. C) Broken leg
8. B) Lying on their back
9. A) Posterior-Anterior
10. D) X-rays
11. C) Pulmonary embolism
12. C) Pleural effusion
13. D) COVID-19
14. C) Enlarged blood vessels
15. A) CT Scan
16. C) Lung cancer
17. A) Collapsed lung
18. C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
19. B) Back of the chest
20. A) Wearing a lead apron
21. B) Radiation exposure
22. D) No specific preparation required
23. B) Pleural effusion
24. A) Chest X-ray
25. D) CT Scan
26. A) Sternoclavicular joint
27. A) Tuberculosis
28. D) Evaluating diaphragm movement
29. B) Fluoroscopy
30. B) Pleural effusion
31. A) Decubitus view
32. A) Darkening of the image
33. A) Rib fracture
34. C) Lung cancer
35. A) 5-10 minutes
36. B) MRI
37. C) Scar tissue
38. D) Radiology Department
39. A) Normal lung tissue
40. B) Avoiding the procedure unless crucial
41. C) Interstitial lung disease
42. A) Borders of the heart and diaphragm merging
43. A) Lung cancer
44. B) Enlarged heart
45. B) Lateral decubitus view
46. B) Airway obstruction
47. A) Tuberculosis
48. C) Utilizing a portable X-ray machine
49. C) Clavicle
50. A) Enlarged heart
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